Blood: The Connecting Tissue — Master Quiz

BLOOD AS A CONNECTIVE TISSUE – 30 MCQS

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PRACTICE QUESTIONS (Q1 - Q30)

Q1. Why is blood classified as a connective tissue?

(A) It contains muscle fibres (B) It connects bones to muscles (C) Its cells are suspended in a fluid extracellular matrix (D) It produces hormones

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Blood is a connective tissue because its cells (formed elements) are suspended in a fluid matrix called plasma.

Q2. Which component of blood forms its fluid matrix?

(A) RBCs (B) WBCs (C) Platelets (D) Plasma

Correct Answer: (D)
Explanation: Plasma is the liquid extracellular matrix in which blood cells and platelets are suspended.

Q3. Which plasma protein is mainly responsible for maintaining osmotic pressure?

(A) Fibrinogen (B) Albumin (C) Globulin (D) Haemoglobin

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Albumin helps maintain the colloidal osmotic pressure of blood and prevents excessive movement of water into tissues.

Q4. Which plasma protein plays the most direct role in blood clotting?

(A) Albumin (B) Globulin (C) Fibrinogen (D) Haemoglobin

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Fibrinogen is converted into fibrin during clot formation, creating a mesh that traps blood cells.

Q5. Which formed element is primarily responsible for oxygen transport?

(A) Platelets (B) RBCs (C) Lymphocytes (D) Neutrophils

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: RBCs contain haemoglobin, which binds oxygen and transports it from the lungs to tissues.

Q6. The biconcave shape of RBCs is advantageous because it:

(A) Increases their ability to divide (B) Increases surface area for gas exchange (C) Helps them produce antibodies (D) Makes them capable of phagocytosis

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: The biconcave shape provides a large surface-area-to-volume ratio and allows efficient exchange of respiratory gases.

Q7. Mature human RBCs lack a nucleus mainly to:

(A) Prevent blood clotting (B) Increase space for haemoglobin (C) Produce antibodies (D) Increase their ability to divide

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Loss of the nucleus provides more internal space for haemoglobin, improving oxygen-carrying capacity.

Q8. Which of the following is NOT a major function of blood?

(A) Transport of nutrients (B) Defence against pathogens (C) Production of digestive enzymes (D) Regulation of body temperature

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Blood transports substances and participates in defence and regulation, but digestive enzymes are mainly produced by digestive organs and glands.

Q9. Which WBC is generally the most abundant in normal human blood?

(A) Eosinophil (B) Basophil (C) Neutrophil (D) Monocyte

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Neutrophils are the most numerous WBCs and are important phagocytic cells involved in defence against infections.

Q10. Which WBC is particularly associated with allergic reactions?

(A) Eosinophils (B) RBCs (C) Monocytes (D) Platelets

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Eosinophils participate in allergic responses and defence against certain parasitic infections.

Q11. Which blood cells are mainly responsible for antibody production?

(A) Neutrophils (B) B lymphocytes (C) Platelets (D) RBCs

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: B lymphocytes can differentiate into plasma cells that produce antibodies.

Q12. Platelets are primarily involved in:

(A) Oxygen transport (B) Antibody production (C) Blood clotting (D) Carbon dioxide production

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Platelets help initiate and support haemostasis, leading to formation of a blood clot at an injured site.

Q13. Platelets are formed from:

(A) Lymphocytes (B) Megakaryocytes (C) Neutrophils (D) Erythrocytes

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Platelets are small cell fragments released from large bone-marrow cells called megakaryocytes.

Q14. Which blood component is mainly responsible for cellular immunity?

(A) T lymphocytes (B) RBCs (C) Platelets (D) Albumin

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: T lymphocytes play central roles in cell-mediated immunity, including killing infected cells and coordinating immune responses.

Q15. Which statement correctly compares plasma and serum?

(A) Serum contains more fibrinogen than plasma (B) Plasma is obtained after clotting (C) Serum is plasma without most clotting factors (D) Plasma contains no proteins

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Serum is the fluid remaining after blood has clotted, so it lacks most of the clotting factors consumed during clot formation.

Q16. A person has a significantly reduced haemoglobin concentration. Which function is most directly affected?

(A) Blood clotting (B) Oxygen transport (C) Antibody production (D) Osmotic regulation

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Haemoglobin is the major oxygen-carrying pigment of RBCs. Reduced haemoglobin decreases the oxygen-carrying capacity of blood.

Q17. Which of the following is the correct sequence during blood clot formation?

(A) Fibrin → fibrinogen → clot (B) Fibrinogen → fibrin → clot formation (C) Albumin → fibrin → clot (D) Haemoglobin → fibrinogen → clot

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: During coagulation, soluble fibrinogen is converted into insoluble fibrin, which forms a meshwork for the clot.

Q18. Which blood cells can leave blood vessels and enter tissues to perform their functions?

(A) RBCs only (B) WBCs (C) Platelets only (D) All RBCs and platelets

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Many WBCs can pass through capillary walls by diapedesis and enter tissues.

Q19. Which WBC is generally considered the largest among the normal circulating leukocytes?

(A) Lymphocyte (B) Basophil (C) Monocyte (D) Neutrophil

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Monocytes are the largest normal circulating WBCs and can differentiate into macrophages in tissues.

Q20. Which component contributes most directly to the viscosity of blood?

(A) RBCs and plasma proteins (B) Oxygen only (C) Glucose only (D) Water only

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: The large number of RBCs and dissolved plasma proteins contribute significantly to blood viscosity.

Q21. If the number of RBCs decreases considerably, which condition is most likely to develop?

(A) Anaemia (B) Leukocytosis (C) Thrombosis (D) Allergy

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: A significant reduction in RBCs or haemoglobin can reduce oxygen delivery to tissues, producing anaemia.

Q22. Which of the following correctly matches the blood component with its function?

(A) RBC — blood clotting (B) Platelets — oxygen transport (C) WBC — defence (D) Albumin — antibody production

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: WBCs are essential components of the body's defence system. RBCs transport gases, platelets aid clotting, and albumin maintains osmotic pressure.

Q23. Which blood cell contains haemoglobin but normally lacks a nucleus in its mature form?

(A) Neutrophil (B) RBC (C) Monocyte (D) Lymphocyte

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Mature human RBCs are anucleate and contain a high concentration of haemoglobin.

Q24. Which statement about WBCs is correct?

(A) All WBCs contain haemoglobin (B) WBCs are mainly responsible for oxygen transport (C) WBCs participate in body defence (D) WBCs are fragments of megakaryocytes

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: WBCs protect the body against pathogens and foreign substances through innate and adaptive immune mechanisms.

Q25. Which component of blood is mainly water?

(A) Plasma (B) Platelets (C) RBCs (D) WBCs

Correct Answer: (A)
Explanation: Plasma is approximately 90–92% water, with proteins, electrolytes, nutrients, hormones and wastes dissolved in it.

Q26. A patient has a very low platelet count. Which problem is most likely?

(A) Reduced oxygen transport (B) Increased difficulty in clotting (C) Increased antibody production (D) Reduced digestion

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: A low platelet count (thrombocytopenia) can impair haemostasis and increase the tendency to bleed.

Q27. Which combination contains only formed elements of blood?

(A) Plasma, albumin, fibrinogen (B) RBCs, WBCs, platelets (C) Water, glucose, RBCs (D) Albumin, globulin, platelets

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: The formed elements are RBCs, WBCs and platelets. Plasma is the fluid matrix.

Q28. Which property makes blood different from most solid connective tissues such as bone?

(A) It contains cells (B) It has an extracellular matrix (C) Its matrix is fluid (D) It has proteins

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Blood has a fluid extracellular matrix (plasma), unlike the solid or semi-solid matrices of tissues such as bone and cartilage.

Q29. A person suffers a cut on the skin. Which sequence best represents the major events involved in preventing excessive blood loss?

(A) RBC destruction → antibody production → clotting (B) Platelet response → coagulation → fibrin formation (C) WBC formation → haemoglobin production → clotting (D) Albumin release → RBC division → clotting

Correct Answer: (B)
Explanation: Injury activates platelets and the coagulation cascade, ultimately producing fibrin, which stabilizes the blood clot.

Q30. Higher-Order Question: A blood sample contains normal RBC and WBC counts but has very low fibrinogen levels. Which function would be most directly impaired?

(A) Oxygen transport (B) Immune defence (C) Blood coagulation (D) Transport of carbon dioxide

Correct Answer: (C)
Explanation: Fibrinogen is a key clotting protein. Without sufficient fibrinogen, formation of the fibrin mesh required for a stable blood clot is impaired.

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